Ryan Hedrich has written a reply to my last article here. I reply:

“On Drake’s view, that which is necessary according to God’s nature is also necessary according to His will. But that which God wills is not necessarily necessary according to His nature”

>>>I fundamentally reject this. I have said this to you many times Ryan. All of God’s volitions have to be in according with his nature. You are terminating all of God’s activities on absolute necessities of nature. I believe that some of God’s actions are not absolute necessities of nature, but activities agreeable to nature. You even state it:

“Now, in our last discussion, Drake agreed that “what God wills must be agreeable to His nature.”

>>>Thank you.

“But, as I just mentioned, he also said he doesn’t think that God’s nature determines everything He wills.”

>>>Depends on what you mean by “determines”. His nature sets the bounds of what the will may pursue.

Turriten says,

“The will can be called the primary rule of justice either intrinsically or extrinsically…In the former sense, his will is regulated by his justice; in thelatter sense, the justice in us is regulated by nothing else than his will…But with respect to God, the will cannot always be called the first rule of justice. It is a rule in those things which have only a free and positive goodness, but not in those things which have essential goodness…For in the latter, God’s will is regulated, not indeed extrinsically but intrinsically (viz. BY HIS MOST HOLY NATURE). Hence it has been well said that certain things are good because God wills them…but that God wills others because they are just and good per se in their own nature…”

Institutes, Vol 1, pg. 233, Third Topic, The Will of God, xviii, Third Topic, The Will of God, xviii, (Phillipsburg, New Jersey: P&R Publishing, 1994) Muller affirms this on page 455, in Post-Reformation Reformed Dogmatics Vol. 3(Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic, 2003)

What you believe is that the bounds are jointly exhaustive with the will and thus you have conflated the two IMO. Thus there really are no bounds there is just the activity of nature. See you even state my position:

“His nature prescribes the boundaries of what can be willed in all cases, but it does not determine what must be willed in all cases.”

>>>Thank you.

 In that case, the argument I outline in the above paragraphs is little different than what it was then:

“The only problem, as I see it, is that on your position, no answer can be given as to why the divine will instantiated this “world” (or reality) over against another  “world” which would have similarly been agreeable to the divine nature.”

>>>Chronologically: Because God’s will is eternal. The chronological reason why he didn’t instantiate another world is because his choice to instantiate this one is eternal and immutable. Logically: I don’t know. We have been over this before. Just because we cannot answer why God decided to do this or that is not a problem, it is simply a spehere inn which God has not revealed himself. I already said this to you a long time ago:

“Even Clark realized that we don’t have answers to everything. My lack of omniscience does not imply a contradiction. God has not revealed that to us completely. This particular complaint is embarrassing for you as a Calvinist. Why does God choose one man over another to be his elect? Is his decision arbitrary? ; Or did He have a [non-arbitrary] reason? If the latter, does not such a reason imply that His will is naturally necessitated? So now, God is necessitated to redeem. So then his mercy is dependent on him showing that mercy to a creature. The exact complaint that I showed is pagan dualism. https://eternalpropositions.wordpress.com/2011/10/01/darkness-a-consistent-hyper-calvinist/

http://unapologetica.blogspot.com/2011/09/impossible-worlds-absolute-necessity.html

 

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“There must be some other “world” agreeable to the divine nature on your view, or else this world would have been necessary, a point to which you strenuously object.”

>>>I still think you are using the word “necessary” ambiguously. Along with the nature-will conflation I think we now have a logical necessity-chronological necessity conflation arising.

I believe that this world is chronologically necessary not logically necessary. I think you believe that it is both. Thus in order for your argument to be consistent, you must provide the logical reason why God chose one man over another for salvation. If one must know every reason behind God’s volitions to escape arbitrarity, then you must explain the logical reason why God chose one man over another to be his elect.  The last time I brought this up you said,

“In a manner of speaking, this is true. I think it would be more technically correct to say that while we have the reason – it is according to His good pleasure because it maximally manifests His glory – we are at present unable to understand how the election of one man over against another (abstractly considered) functions toward this end. It’s a question of how, not why. And in any case, I admit that there is a necessary reason for electing one man over against another.”

http://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=3295328575953992372&postID=8765669237075071740

You also said,

“Are you saying that because God’s glory would be maximally manifested by His creation of this world, this world is what He chose to create?”

To which I replied,

>>>Maybe, maybe not. The MODE AND CIRCUMSTANCE is not revealed only the essential purpose [God”s glory-DS].

You responded,

“What mode and circumstance are you referring to, and how is it revealed (or is it)?”

To which I replied,

“>>>Your assertion is that THIS PARTICULAR creation (mode and circumstance of a creation) is a necessity of divine nature for the maximizing of God’s glory. I say that this particular creation is not a necessity of nature but a [chronological] necessity deriving from the eternality of divine will for God’s glory. I am not going to commit myself to the idea that THIS PARTICULAR creation is the only possible way God could have maximized his glory. Maybe it is, maybe it isn’t I don’t know.”

——-

“I believe last time we established that another such “world” would have been one in which God didn’t create.”

>>>And I replied that your statement itself is meaningless, because you are making God a world. I said,

“Sure it does. You want to put God into the category of the “other possible world” and the entire endeavor is getting quite goofy.”

Your argument assumes upon a denial of creation ex nihilo.

 

“That would be, you said, consistent with the divine nature.”

>>>Did I? Where? I thought I challenged the meaning of your premise every time.

“This is why the instantiation of this “world” must have been arbitrary relative to any other “world” which would have been agreeable to the divine nature. This is why I say that on your view, the divine will is arbitrary. Anything you could adduce as a reason for God’s instantiation of this “world” (e.g. “for His glory”) could without exception have been adduced as a reason for the other.”

>>>That same argument could be applied to soteriology, which you have yet to face. An appeal to ignorance is not an appeal to arbitrarity.

“The word “reason” can be replaced by the word “basis” and as we have discussed many times there are two of those in God: nature and will. So yes you could ask what was the basis of his eternal will, and I would respond, the agreeability of his nature.

“I am afraid the point has been missed. If I ask what the basis or reason is that, given that world A (in which God creates) and world B (in which God never creates) are both agreeable to His nature, God chose to instantiate world A rather than world B, the answer “it was agreeable to His nature” doesn’t suffice.”

>>>That is because you have changed the question. Notice, above the question is “What is the basis for God’s will to create”? In the latter the question is, “why is this world agreeable to his nature and another is not?” TO THAT QUESTION I TAP OUT IN IGNORANCE.

“Drake does mention that there are two “reasons” or “bases”in God, but He doesn’t elaborate as to what that means.”

>>>Reason 1-A chronological necessity extending fro the eternality of the divine will.

Reason 2- A logical necessity extending from the absolute necessity or agreeability of the divine nature.

“in what way does his answers to these questions solve the problem of seeming arbitrariness (i.e. God’s choosing of world A which is no more or less agreeable to His nature than world B would have been)?”

>>>I have already refuted  the premise that ignorance=arbitrarity.

“Firstly, I have to wonder what was the point of the previous questions designed to determine whether I was speaking of necessity “according to nature”or necessity “according to will” when it is apparent he already knew I was speaking about the former.”

>>>I don’t understand this paragraph.

“More importantly, how is the will of God necessary if it is not necessitated by His nature?”

>>>Chronologically. Thus other possible worlds are chronologically  eliminated.

“Now Drake offers a few criticisms of his own. Firstly, he thinks that my assertion that there are not multiple possible worlds agreeable to God’s nature implies “a conflation of activity, essence and existence. This is ADS.”

>>>The exact phrase I responded to was, “but I assert that creation is not consubstantial with the Father because the Father did not [and, therefore, could not”. Here we have activity (Which I use synonymously with existence IN THIS CONTEXT), “the Father did”, with nature and will, “could not”. I don’t think you have fairly faced the argument. .

“why does Drake think that “the Son and Spirit [are] said to be eternally begotten and spirated because the divine nature is communicated to them” suggests arbitrarity?”

>>>Because on my view eternal generation and spiration are the means/channels/relation, by which the communication is made. If they already have the communication logically before the eternal generation and spiration, there is no need for these activities. They are arbitrarily thrown into the mix to make it look like the Christian view.

“I stated the existences of the Son and Spirit are necessary in any case, so if everything God wills is to maximize the manifestation of His glory, and the Father has communicated divinity (and individuating properties) to two other subjects, the logical conclusion is that this communication is willed for His glory”

>>>That activity is not from the will but the nature.

“which is clearly not ad hoc.”

>>>You are confusing categories. You think that purpose equals basis. You are getting the cart before the horse.

His last argument, stated here, explains why he thinks that it is necessary to maintain that creation is not necessary according to God’s nature, and this, unless I am mistaken, is supposed to show why that which is derived by a necessity of nature is that to which the divine nature is communicated. Essentially, the argument is that if creation is necessary according to God’s nature, such makes God’s nature dependent on creation, which is pagan.

>>>Which you have already admitted to:

“I think I finally understand your argument. I haven’t really grasped it until now. It’s this:

God’s nature is His attributes. You think that I am asserting God’s nature depends on creation in the sense that God’s mercy, wrath, justice, compassion, goodness, etc. (or at least one of those attributes) requires a creation. If mercy et. al. could be predicated of God apart from creation, then it could not be the case that creation necessarily follows from the divine nature. If mercy et. al. cannot be predicated of God apart from creation, these divine attributes would “depend” on creation, and so divine nature wouldn’t be self-sufficient in that sense. Is that right?

This seems true and that you have a point here. I need to think about it, as well as the implications of each position. Could you expand a bit more on what would follow if God’s self-sufficiency were denied? You’ve referenced a few concepts, but I would need more than just “that’s Plotinian” or pagan. Not to say that I would want to be associated with either, obviously, but I still have one problem with your position:”

http://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=3295328575953992372&postID=8765669237075071740

———

“But dependent in what sense? In my article on Clarke, Drake made the point – with which I agree – that the properties of the Father logically depend on the Son. The Father cannot be the Father unless there is a Son, which is no problem since the Son has always existed. But this isn’t pagan, is it?”

>>>No, it is not pagan because as you admit, the Son is not a creature, he is eternal. But wait, we have already established though, that the Son is consubstantial with the Father.

“The Son metaphysically depends on the Father, yet the Father too in some sense depends on the Son. If no deficiency in the Father is implied in this case, then I do not see why, by way of analogy, it may not be said that creation is necessary according to God’s nature so long as it is clarified that any implied dependency doesn’t suggest deficiency.”

>>>First of all, my argument (Which is the same as my argument regarding divine infinity), is that an absolute necessity to create extending from the divine nature (ANC), requires that the meaning of the attributes, their definition, is dependent on a creation. A dependence, not in the order of existing in the genus of being, but a logical order in the genus of epistemology.  Thus this logical dependency, requires that the objects juxtaposed to the attributes, must always be so juxtaposed in order that the attributes may be so defined. Thus the creation must also be eternal.

So the emphasis, is not on a deficiency, in the order of existing in the genus of being, but on the nature of the logical juxtaposition, which is the Neoplatonic, infinte-finite; ying and yang dialectic.

“Indeed, creation is from God precisely because God had a reason to create. That this reason is necessary according to His nature rather anticipates any objection that this reason is externally imposed on God.”

>>>I am not saying that your view imposes a creation above God, just like Plotinus did not place the hierarchy of being above the One but emanating out of it.

“God is sufficiently able to effect that which He most strongly desires; the fact that He must do so according to His nature is not because of what creation is”

>>>By “what creation is”, do you refer to the genus of being or epistemology?

 

“The creation clearly metaphysically depends on the Creator”

>>In the order of existing sure, but the meaning of both is dependent on the juxtaposition in your theology.

“but it must also be kept in mind that it is the nature of God that determines the nature of creation”

>>>In the genus of being, but not in the genus of epistemology. Thus in the order of existing, not the logical order: on your theology, and guess what, in Plotinus’ theology.

“It is rather like epistemology: in epistemology, there are axioms and theorems. In short, axioms are the set of propositions purported to be sufficient in order for knowledge to be possible.”

>>>But that knowledge depends on a genus of being, an order of existing which begins with the mind of the Father.

“They are preconditions for knowledge.”

>>>In the genus of epistemology sure, and I know these two genuses have some overlap, but the “existence” of the Father’s mind, makes all that epistemology possible in the order of existing.